Partbin with 0 quantity

Yahoo Archive
1
We are running on 407a sql and I do see a certain amount of 0 on hand
quantities for bins. Fortunately our crack inventory team seldom
notices this.



Rob Bucek

Manufacturing Engineer

PH: 715-284-5376 ext 311

FAX: 715-284-4084

<http://www.dsmfg.com/>

(Click the logo to view our site)



________________________________

From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf
Of Robert Brown
Sent: Friday, June 05, 2009 4:23 PM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity





Tony,

Maybe it's a quirk with your version when run on SQLServer as Adam is
right - at least on Progress, there will never be a zero qty o/h PartBin
record. (PartBinInfo is another story entirely.)

We've had to run 6430 occasionally (at least I think that is the one) to
clean up messed up allocations on 405a progress (the wide open GUI
interface - and probably some misguided initial customizations on our
part that I hope we completely found and cleaned up! - allows users to
accidentally find 'creative' ways to modify the qty of requirements -
say from a job - and NOT have the allocations properly adjusted to suit)
- but I've never seen a problem with the PartBin records.

Just curious... Are you configured to disallow negative O/H's?

I ask as I'm wondering if NOT allowing negatives somehow blows up the BO
methods involved if a backflush (or perhaps even manual) PartTran hits a
PartBin record in a way that WOULD result in a negative (if executed
fully) but might trip up the PartTran record deletion for o/h = 0
PartBins...

Very curious.

If you figure it out (more than just running 6430), I'd love to hear
what it was.

Rob Brown

________________________________
From: Tony Hughes <thughes281@... <mailto:thughes281%40yahoo.com>
>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 2:07:42 PM
Subject: Re: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity

Yes, I agree they shouldn't be there, but they are.
I've called support more than once, and they just point me to "6430 -
Recalculate On Hand/Allocation Summaries", which I guess among other
things, deletes them.

The problem comes up because the users create their own BAQs, and they
do not remember to set the onhandqty <> 0.
And if you are thinkign users making BAQs is not advisable, I
semi-agree, but we use a heavily modified cycle count system, and it's
just easier if they do all of this themselves. There is no way to
automate it, or create an interface, that does all they want to do and
in the way they want to do

Just hoping this was something simpler than it seems to be.
Thank you for all replies!

____________ _________ _________ __
From: adam.whipp <adam.whipp@national tubeform. com>
To: vantage@yahoogroups .com
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 12:34:55 PM
Subject: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity

Straight from the data dictionaryfor PartBin -- "When the OnHand
quantity becomes zero the PartBin record is deleted. There should never
be any records that exist with a zero quantity onhand."

I checked our database, and we have no 0 qty PartBin records, and I
don't recall a time when there ever were any in it here. I wonder if you
might have some other issue going on if they aren't deleting
automatically. ...

Adam Whipp

--- In vantage@yahoogroups .com, Tony Hughes <thughes281@ ...> wrote:
>
>
> Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
> These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws
their little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we
know. Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
> Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was
thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we
have SQL Server backend)
>
> I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
> I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in
to the server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the
procedure, run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then
close all this out.
> when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where
onhandqty = 0" and hit F5.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]





[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
2
Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know. Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have SQL Server backend)

I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure, run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this out.
when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty = 0" and hit F5.



Thanks!
3
Be very careful going in the backdoor to delete records - it can void your
support. So tables you should have no problems with this, but others that
hit transactions you could run into issues.

Are the inventory people complaining about the empty bins because they show
up on a report? Why not change the report.
Do they not want to use the bins? Set up a Quick search for the bin, that
runs off a BAQ that does not show the empty bins and default this throughout
the application. Easier than every once in awhile deleting the BINs.

Bruce
bruce@...
www.ERPgeek.com


-----Original Message-----
From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of
Tony Hughes
Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 9:40 AM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Subject: [Vantage] Partbin with 0 quantity


Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their
little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know.
Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was
thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have
SQL Server backend)

I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the
server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure,
run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this
out.
when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty =
0" and hit F5.



Thanks!






------------------------------------

Useful links for the Yahoo!Groups Vantage Board are: ( Note: You must have
already linked your email address to a yahoo id to enable access. )
(1) To access the Files Section of our Yahoo!Group for Report Builder and
Crystal Reports and other 'goodies', please goto:
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/vantage/files/.
(2) To search through old msg's goto:
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/vantage/messages
(3) To view links to Vendors that provide Vantage services goto:
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/vantage/linksYahoo! Groups Links





[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
4
I agree with Bruce.
Unless you are referring PartBinInfo (and not PartBin), I wouldn't be poking around in there. I would think just occasionally compacting your db would take care of the issue if it is indeed safe to do.

The only place it should be impacting you is cycle counting with the 'include zero qty o/h' option checked.

Every where else (at least on progress db) the apps annoyingly blind you to zero qty o/h PartBins (hence the PartBinInfo table that, intended for bin KanBans, can be used to retain 'permanent' part bin relationships).

If this is a canned report issue, just change the report.

Rob BrownÂ




________________________________
From: Bruce Larson <epicor@...>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 12:42:01 PM
Subject: RE: [Vantage] Partbin with 0 quantity





Be very careful going in the backdoor to delete records - it can void your
support. So tables you should have no problems with this, but others that
hit transactions you could run into issues.

Are the inventory people complaining about the empty bins because they show
up on a report? Why not change the report.
Do they not want to use the bins? Set up a Quick search for the bin, that
runs off a BAQ that does not show the empty bins and default this throughout
the application. Easier than every once in awhile deleting the BINs.

Bruce
bruce@ERPgeek. com
www.ERPgeek. com

-----Original Message-----
From: vantage@yahoogroups .com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups .com] On Behalf Of
Tony Hughes
Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 9:40 AM
To: vantage@yahoogroups .com
Subject: [Vantage] Partbin with 0 quantity

Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their
little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know.
Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was
thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have
SQL Server backend)

I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the
server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure,
run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this
out.
when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty =
0" and hit F5.

Thanks!

------------ --------- --------- ------

Useful links for the Yahoo!Groups Vantage Board are: ( Note: You must have
already linked your email address to a yahoo id to enable access. )
(1) To access the Files Section of our Yahoo!Group for Report Builder and
Crystal Reports and other 'goodies', please goto:
http://groups. yahoo.com/ group/vantage/ files/.
(2) To search through old msg's goto:
http://groups. yahoo.com/ group/vantage/ messages
(3) To view links to Vendors that provide Vantage services goto:
http://groups. yahoo.com/ group/vantage/ linksYahoo! Groups Links

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]







[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
5
Straight from the data dictionaryfor PartBin -- "When the OnHand quantity becomes zero the PartBin record is deleted. There should never be any records that exist with a zero quantity onhand."

I checked our database, and we have no 0 qty PartBin records, and I don't recall a time when there ever were any in it here. I wonder if you might have some other issue going on if they aren't deleting automatically....

Adam Whipp



--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com, Tony Hughes <thughes281@...> wrote:
>
>
> Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
> These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know. Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
> Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have SQL Server backend)
>
> I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
> I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure, run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this out.
> when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty = 0" and hit F5.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>
6
Yes, I agree they shouldn't be there, but they are.
I've called support more than once, and they just point me to "6430 - Recalculate On Hand/Allocation Summaries", which I guess among other things, deletes them.

The problem comes up because the users create their own BAQs, and they do not remember to set the onhandqty <> 0.
And if you are thinkign users making BAQs is not advisable, I semi-agree, but we use a heavily modified cycle count system, and it's just easier if they do all of this themselves. There is no way to automate it, or create an interface, that does all they want to do and in the way they want to do

Just hoping this was something simpler than it seems to be.
Thank you for all replies!





________________________________
From: adam.whipp <adam.whipp@...>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 12:34:55 PM
Subject: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity





Straight from the data dictionaryfor PartBin -- "When the OnHand quantity becomes zero the PartBin record is deleted. There should never be any records that exist with a zero quantity onhand."

I checked our database, and we have no 0 qty PartBin records, and I don't recall a time when there ever were any in it here. I wonder if you might have some other issue going on if they aren't deleting automatically. ...

Adam Whipp

--- In vantage@yahoogroups .com, Tony Hughes <thughes281@ ...> wrote:
>
>
> Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
> These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know. Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
> Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have SQL Server backend)
>
> I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
> I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure, run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this out.
> when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty = 0" and hit F5.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>







[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
7
Good Afternoon,



I am trying to write a bpm in Epicor 9 that when a quote is entered the
BPM will change the first sales person to the user id of the person
entering the quote. I have created a pre-processing process that has
the following condition: the QuoteHed.RowMod field of the changed row
is equal to the 'A' expression. My Actions is this: synchronously
execute ABL for each ttQuoteHead where ttQuoteHed.com...record nothing.
My 4 GL code is this:



for each ttQuoteHed where ttQuoteHed.Company = CUR-COMP and
ttQuoteHed.RowMod = 'A' no-lock:



find first ttQSalesRP where ttQSalesRP.Company = ttQuoteHed.Company and
ttQSalesRP.QuoteNum = ttQuoteHed.QuoteNum exclusive-lock no-error.



assign ttQSalesRP.SalesRepCode = DCD-USERID.



end.



I know bmp is passing the condition because I have put a message box in
place of the 4 gl code. But when I replace the message box with the 4
gl code it does not change the sales person. Does anyone know why.



Thanks!



Dale



[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
8
Hi Dale,

Try your code with QSalesRP instead of ttQSalesRP. See if that makes any difference.

Also, are your userids and Sales Rep *Codes* exactly the same?

Nigel.

--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com, "Dale R. Kalsow" <dale.r.kalsow@...> wrote:
>
> Good Afternoon,
>
>
>
> I am trying to write a bpm in Epicor 9 that when a quote is entered the
> BPM will change the first sales person to the user id of the person
> entering the quote. I have created a pre-processing process that has
> the following condition: the QuoteHed.RowMod field of the changed row
> is equal to the 'A' expression. My Actions is this: synchronously
> execute ABL for each ttQuoteHead where ttQuoteHed.com...record nothing.
> My 4 GL code is this:
>
>
>
> for each ttQuoteHed where ttQuoteHed.Company = CUR-COMP and
> ttQuoteHed.RowMod = 'A' no-lock:
>
>
>
> find first ttQSalesRP where ttQSalesRP.Company = ttQuoteHed.Company and
> ttQSalesRP.QuoteNum = ttQuoteHed.QuoteNum exclusive-lock no-error.
>
>
>
> assign ttQSalesRP.SalesRepCode = DCD-USERID.
>
>
>
> end.
>
>
>
> I know bmp is passing the condition because I have put a message box in
> place of the 4 gl code. But when I replace the message box with the 4
> gl code it does not change the sales person. Does anyone know why.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>
>
>
> Dale
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>
9
Does anybody have an asp (classic asp) code sample for connection to the
Progress 10.1B database?



Thanks in advance,



Randy Weber







[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
10
Thanks for the help.



Yes my userids and sales rep codes are identical.



Changing from ttQSalesRP to QSalesRP did not make the BPM work. Good
idea though.



Any more good ideas?



Dale



From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf
Of Nigel Kerley
Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 1:58 PM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Subject: [Vantage] Re: BPM 4 GL Help








Hi Dale,

Try your code with QSalesRP instead of ttQSalesRP. See if that makes any
difference.

Also, are your userids and Sales Rep *Codes* exactly the same?

Nigel.

--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com> ,
"Dale R. Kalsow" <dale.r.kalsow@...> wrote:
>
> Good Afternoon,
>
>
>
> I am trying to write a bpm in Epicor 9 that when a quote is entered
the
> BPM will change the first sales person to the user id of the person
> entering the quote. I have created a pre-processing process that has
> the following condition: the QuoteHed.RowMod field of the changed row
> is equal to the 'A' expression. My Actions is this: synchronously
> execute ABL for each ttQuoteHead where ttQuoteHed.com...record
nothing.
> My 4 GL code is this:
>
>
>
> for each ttQuoteHed where ttQuoteHed.Company = CUR-COMP and
> ttQuoteHed.RowMod = 'A' no-lock:
>
>
>
> find first ttQSalesRP where ttQSalesRP.Company = ttQuoteHed.Company
and
> ttQSalesRP.QuoteNum = ttQuoteHed.QuoteNum exclusive-lock no-error.
>
>
>
> assign ttQSalesRP.SalesRepCode = DCD-USERID.
>
>
>
> end.
>
>
>
> I know bmp is passing the condition because I have put a message box
in
> place of the 4 gl code. But when I replace the message box with the 4
> gl code it does not change the sales person. Does anyone know why.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>
>
>
> Dale
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>





[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
11
Enabling a Post-Process directive from a Pre-Process?



You wouldn't have to declare a character variable with that 4GL constant
would you?



Rob Bucek

Manufacturing Engineer

PH: 715-284-5376 ext 311

FAX: 715-284-4084

<http://www.dsmfg.com/>

(Click the logo to view our site)



________________________________

From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf
Of Dale R. Kalsow
Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 2:48 PM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Subject: RE: [Vantage] Re: BPM 4 GL Help





Thanks for the help.

Yes my userids and sales rep codes are identical.

Changing from ttQSalesRP to QSalesRP did not make the BPM work. Good
idea though.

Any more good ideas?

Dale

From: vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com>
[mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com> ] On
Behalf
Of Nigel Kerley
Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 1:58 PM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com>
Subject: [Vantage] Re: BPM 4 GL Help

Hi Dale,

Try your code with QSalesRP instead of ttQSalesRP. See if that makes any
difference.

Also, are your userids and Sales Rep *Codes* exactly the same?

Nigel.

--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com>
<mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com> ,
"Dale R. Kalsow" <dale.r.kalsow@...> wrote:
>
> Good Afternoon,
>
>
>
> I am trying to write a bpm in Epicor 9 that when a quote is entered
the
> BPM will change the first sales person to the user id of the person
> entering the quote. I have created a pre-processing process that has
> the following condition: the QuoteHed.RowMod field of the changed row
> is equal to the 'A' expression. My Actions is this: synchronously
> execute ABL for each ttQuoteHead where ttQuoteHed.com...record
nothing.
> My 4 GL code is this:
>
>
>
> for each ttQuoteHed where ttQuoteHed.Company = CUR-COMP and
> ttQuoteHed.RowMod = 'A' no-lock:
>
>
>
> find first ttQSalesRP where ttQSalesRP.Company = ttQuoteHed.Company
and
> ttQSalesRP.QuoteNum = ttQuoteHed.QuoteNum exclusive-lock no-error.
>
>
>
> assign ttQSalesRP.SalesRepCode = DCD-USERID.
>
>
>
> end.
>
>
>
> I know bmp is passing the condition because I have put a message box
in
> place of the 4 gl code. But when I replace the message box with the 4
> gl code it does not change the sales person. Does anyone know why.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>
>
>
> Dale
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]





[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
12
Hi Dale,

The problem seem to be that even though Vantage has generated the QuoteNum, it hasn't been passed through to ttQuoteHed. As a result the "find first QSalesRP..." is failing. Strange!

And by the time you reach the post-processing directive, ttQuoteHed.RowMod is no longer set. So while you could still update the SalesRepCode, you wouldn't be sure that it was only for brand new quotes.

It might be a bit cumbersome, but you could try something like:
1. a pre-processing directive that sets ttQuoteHed.CheckBox01 = true if RowMod = 'A'
2. a post-processing directive that sets the SalesRepCode if ttQuoteHed.CheckBox01 = true

HTH,

Nigel.


--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com, "Dale R. Kalsow" <dale.r.kalsow@...> wrote:
>
> Thanks for the help.
>
>
>
> Yes my userids and sales rep codes are identical.
>
>
>
> Changing from ttQSalesRP to QSalesRP did not make the BPM work. Good
> idea though.
>
>
>
> Any more good ideas?
>
>
>
> Dale
>
>
>
> From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf
> Of Nigel Kerley
> Sent: Thursday, June 04, 2009 1:58 PM
> To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: [Vantage] Re: BPM 4 GL Help
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Hi Dale,
>
> Try your code with QSalesRP instead of ttQSalesRP. See if that makes any
> difference.
>
> Also, are your userids and Sales Rep *Codes* exactly the same?
>
> Nigel.
>
> --- In vantage@yahoogroups.com <mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com> ,
> "Dale R. Kalsow" <dale.r.kalsow@> wrote:
> >
> > Good Afternoon,
> >
> >
> >
> > I am trying to write a bpm in Epicor 9 that when a quote is entered
> the
> > BPM will change the first sales person to the user id of the person
> > entering the quote. I have created a pre-processing process that has
> > the following condition: the QuoteHed.RowMod field of the changed row
> > is equal to the 'A' expression. My Actions is this: synchronously
> > execute ABL for each ttQuoteHead where ttQuoteHed.com...record
> nothing.
> > My 4 GL code is this:
> >
> >
> >
> > for each ttQuoteHed where ttQuoteHed.Company = CUR-COMP and
> > ttQuoteHed.RowMod = 'A' no-lock:
> >
> >
> >
> > find first ttQSalesRP where ttQSalesRP.Company = ttQuoteHed.Company
> and
> > ttQSalesRP.QuoteNum = ttQuoteHed.QuoteNum exclusive-lock no-error.
> >
> >
> >
> > assign ttQSalesRP.SalesRepCode = DCD-USERID.
> >
> >
> >
> > end.
> >
> >
> >
> > I know bmp is passing the condition because I have put a message box
> in
> > place of the 4 gl code. But when I replace the message box with the 4
> > gl code it does not change the sales person. Does anyone know why.
> >
> >
> >
> > Thanks!
> >
> >
> >
> > Dale
> >
> >
> >
> > [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
> >
>
>
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>
13
Tony,

Maybe it's a quirk with your version when run on SQLServer as Adam is right - at least on Progress, there will never be a zero qty o/h PartBin record. (PartBinInfo is another story entirely.)

We've had to run 6430 occasionally (at least I think that is the one) to clean up messed up allocations on 405a progress (the wide open GUI interface - and probably some misguided initial customizations on our part that I hope we completely found and cleaned up! - allows users to accidentally find 'creative' ways to modify the qty of requirements - say from a job - and NOT have the allocations properly adjusted to suit) - but I've never seen a problem with the PartBin records.

Just curious... Are you configured to disallow negative O/H's?

I ask as I'm wondering if NOT allowing negatives somehow blows up the BO methods involved if a backflush (or perhaps even manual)Â PartTran hits a PartBin record in a way that WOULD result in a negative (if executed fully)Â but might trip up the PartTran record deletion for o/h = 0Â PartBins...

Very curious.

If you figure it out (more than just running 6430), I'd love to hear what it was.

Rob Brown



________________________________
From: Tony Hughes <thughes281@...>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 2:07:42 PM
Subject: Re: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity





Yes, I agree they shouldn't be there, but they are.
I've called support more than once, and they just point me to "6430 - Recalculate On Hand/Allocation Summaries", which I guess among other things, deletes them.

The problem comes up because the users create their own BAQs, and they do not remember to set the onhandqty <> 0.
And if you are thinkign users making BAQs is not advisable, I semi-agree, but we use a heavily modified cycle count system, and it's just easier if they do all of this themselves. There is no way to automate it, or create an interface, that does all they want to do and in the way they want to do

Just hoping this was something simpler than it seems to be.
Thank you for all replies!

____________ _________ _________ __
From: adam.whipp <adam.whipp@national tubeform. com>
To: vantage@yahoogroups .com
Sent: Thursday, June 4, 2009 12:34:55 PM
Subject: [Vantage] Re: Partbin with 0 quantity

Straight from the data dictionaryfor PartBin -- "When the OnHand quantity becomes zero the PartBin record is deleted. There should never be any records that exist with a zero quantity onhand."

I checked our database, and we have no 0 qty PartBin records, and I don't recall a time when there ever were any in it here. I wonder if you might have some other issue going on if they aren't deleting automatically. ...

Adam Whipp

--- In vantage@yahoogroups .com, Tony Hughes <thughes281@ ...> wrote:
>
>
> Is it safe to just delete any partbin entries that show onhandqty = 0?
> These come up once in a while, and for inventory people it just throws their little world upside down and they call us 75 times to make sure we know. Some quote Nostradamus, others throw Bible verses at us.
> Rather than resort to medication for them, or drinking for me, I was thinking I'd just delete the records on a scheduled, regular basis. (we have SQL Server backend)
>
> I assume it is safe to delete partbin records with zero onhandqty?
> I know there is a progress procedure, but it requires me to remote in to the server, log in to that progress thingy, click a button, find the procedure, run it, wait an extraordinarily long amount of time, then close all this out.
> when all I really need to do is type "delete from partbin where onhandqty = 0" and hit F5.
>
>
>
> Thanks!
>

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