RMA Cost Blank Title 117292

Yahoo Archive
1
I recently researched this and demonstrated what was last said. If the RMA is linked to a sales order it pulls the cost from the sales order, if there is no sales order chosen then if the part was ever bought by that customer, then you get current cost. And if the part was never purchased by the customer, you get zero but you can choose any cost you want

Sent from my iPhone
Carl Heeder
2
We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?
3
Did you notice the unit cost info at the bottom of the rma disposition detail tab? We need to zero these when we dispose a returned part to a job to fix it.

Nancy

--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com, "vanessa.rasey" wrote:
>
> We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?
>
4
We were seeing this same situation. We ship 2 different ways, from jobs and from inventory. If a part has ever been in inventory it will have an average cost in our system while parts that have never been in inventory will not have an average cost in our system. I think if parts are returned to your inventory and they have an average cost in your systme then they will come in at that cost.
Â

________________________________
From: vanessa.rasey <vanessa.rasey@...>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, January 10, 2013 2:04 PM
Subject: [Vantage] RMA Cost


Â

We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?




[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
5
Parts not tied to a sales order for RMA will come in at whatever cost that part is evaluated in your inventory (regardless of costing method).

Rob Bucek
Production Control Manager
PH: (715) 284-5376 ext 311
Mobile: (715)896-4832
FAX: (715)284-4084
[cid:1.234354861@...]<http://www.dsmfg.com/>
(Click the logo to view our site)<http://www.dsmfg.com/>

From: vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of Jim Eliason
Sent: Thursday, January 10, 2013 2:09 PM
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com
Subject: Re: [Vantage] RMA Cost



We were seeing this same situation. We ship 2 different ways, from jobs and from inventory. If a part has ever been in inventory it will have an average cost in our system while parts that have never been in inventory will not have an average cost in our system. I think if parts are returned to your inventory and they have an average cost in your systme then they will come in at that cost.


________________________________
From: vanessa.rasey vanessa.rasey@...<mailto:vanessa.rasey%40motoman.com>>
To: vantage@yahoogroups.com<mailto:vantage%40yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Thursday, January 10, 2013 2:04 PM
Subject: [Vantage] RMA Cost




We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]



[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
6
What we have been told, and have seen when testing, is that if the part has
sold to anyone at any time in Epicor, then the costing will be correct in
RMA Disposition.



*Tanya Denison* | IT Manager | NRS, Inc.

*2009 S. Main Street, Moscow, ID 83843*



*tdenison@... *|* www.nrsweb.com*

*c: 208.301.0599* | *p: 208.883.7834 Ext 277 *|* f: 208.882.1744*



*From:* vantage@yahoogroups.com [mailto:vantage@yahoogroups.com] *On Behalf
Of *vanessa.rasey
*Sent:* Thursday, January 10, 2013 12:04 PM
*To:* vantage@yahoogroups.com
*Subject:* [Vantage] RMA Cost





We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order
line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing
instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others
do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is
happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?




[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
7
After reading old posts from June 2009 that indicated a similar issue. The explanation from Mark Wagner was the following which we have subsequently tested and agree with:

If you do an RMA against a SO it will look at the COGS sold,
if it is not against a SO the system will attempt to find any shipments
for that particular part for that particular customer and use that COGS.
If it cannot find any shipments it will default to zero and not to the
current (avg, standard, etc) inventory cost.



>>> "vanessa.rasey" <vanessa.rasey@...> 1/10/2013 3:04 PM >>>

We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?




[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
8
We had so many problems with this, that we finally wrote a BPM that zero'd out the costs in all the fields. It was then the user's decision whether or not to assign any dollar values.



--- In vantage@yahoogroups.com, "vanessa rasey" wrote:
>
> After reading old posts from June 2009 that indicated a similar issue. The explanation from Mark Wagner was the following which we have subsequently tested and agree with:
>
> If you do an RMA against a SO it will look at the COGS sold,
> if it is not against a SO the system will attempt to find any shipments
> for that particular part for that particular customer and use that COGS.
> If it cannot find any shipments it will default to zero and not to the
> current (avg, standard, etc) inventory cost.
>
>
>
> >>> "vanessa.rasey" 1/10/2013 3:04 PM >>>
>
> We were under the impression that if a RMA was not tied to a sales order line that it would come through with $0 cost. However, we are seeing instances in which some RMA not tied to a sales order have cost and others do not. We do not see any sort of pattern to account for why this is happening in some situations and not others. Any thoughts?
>
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>