I am wondering if anyone can help me out on this. I wrote an RB report to take the current inventory counts and value parts at the BOM standard costs. I thought it was good, but now question some of the costs from the PartRev table. This is the
example that I have. Part went into inventory on 6/28/05 and the labor & burden cost was low, I did a cost roll-up on 6/30/05 which shows re-valuation of the part to bring the costs up - both in the Cost Set Entry and Part transaction screen.
There was also a Rev change on 6/27/05 that updated the costs on the BOM - therefore PartRev table (I would think?)
On 7/1 I ran my RB report using the PartRev table for all the costs, and it still shows the old - lower costs.
Am I mistaken that the PartRev table holds the labor, burden, material costs for the Revision based on the BOM and therefore using that table to value parts on-hand at BOM standard cost - should be the right way to do this?
Any guidance would be appreciated!
Julie Lehmann, MIS Director
MERCURY MINNESOTA INC.
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
example that I have. Part went into inventory on 6/28/05 and the labor & burden cost was low, I did a cost roll-up on 6/30/05 which shows re-valuation of the part to bring the costs up - both in the Cost Set Entry and Part transaction screen.
There was also a Rev change on 6/27/05 that updated the costs on the BOM - therefore PartRev table (I would think?)
On 7/1 I ran my RB report using the PartRev table for all the costs, and it still shows the old - lower costs.
Am I mistaken that the PartRev table holds the labor, burden, material costs for the Revision based on the BOM and therefore using that table to value parts on-hand at BOM standard cost - should be the right way to do this?
Any guidance would be appreciated!
Julie Lehmann, MIS Director
MERCURY MINNESOTA INC.
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]