MFG-VAR calculation

Hello Folks,

  1. The MFG-STK amount (from the Part Transaction History Tracker) divided by the number of units
  2. Minus actual cost for one unit
  3. The difference of these two lines is then multiplied by the number of units
  4. And that product is what is we see in the usage variance.

For example:
Order #: 1807

  1. The MFG-STK for one unit is:
    Date
    Type
    Quantity
    Job
    Invty
    Amount
    Mtl Unit Cost
    Lbr Unit Cost
    Bur Unit Cost
    Sub Unit Cost
    2/26/2024 12:00:00 AM
    MFG-STK
    2
    1807
    TRUE
    2142.26
    801.1622
    55.365
    214.605
    0

  2. Minus actual cost for one unit is:
    Quantity
    Job
    Amount
    Mtl Unit Cost
    Lbr Unit Cost
    Bur Unit Cost
    Actual cost of Job for 1 qty :
    857.97
    18.46
    71.54

  3. The difference of these two lines is then multiplied by the number of units:
    MFG-STK Mtl Unit Cost
    Lbr Unit Cost
    Bur Unit Cost
    Sub Unit Cost
    801.1622
    55.365
    214.605
    0
    Actual cost -857.97 -18.46 -71.54 0

56.80 -36.91 -143.07 0
Number of units x 2 x 2 x2 x2

Total: 113.61 -73.82 -286.14 0
This amt. is posted in
the usage variance account.

My question is why is the MFG-STK amount used to calculate the usage variance balance? Is there a reason why the MFG-STK is used and not the estimated amount found in the Production Detail report?

The variance from what I have found is what is left in wip when the job is completed.
All material, labor, burden minus MFG-STK,NFG-CUS material, labor, burden anything left or added after the last MFG-STK,MFG-CUS is the variance.

Lots of our people thought job closing was the magical moment, but the last quantity issued to stock is the point in time we have found.

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why is the MFG-STK amount used to calculate the usage variance balance?

Are you standard costed? If so all of what I wrote is for FIFO costing.

Standard costing.

So the theory would be similar. Estimates are a benchmark, but have nothing to do with costing.
Actual costs on job then the MFG-STK puts the item on hand at standard. Any differences or late issues will be put to the variance account.

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Because when the parts are moved from WIP to Inventory they have to have a cost associated with them. The WIP value of the part is whatever costs have accumulated during the manufacturing process, but the Inventory value is determined by the Cost Method. If the part is Standard costed, the difference between the WIP value and the Standard Cost is the variance.

Inventory values are NOT updated if additional costs are added to the job AFTER the MFG-STK transaction.

This is a timing issue.

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I have this BAQ which gives an estimation of what variance could be. Of course the only way to know for certain is to run the Inventory/WIP Reconciliation report.

MFG_VAR.baq (10.1 KB)

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