I have a general question if anyone has any experience or can answer. I am being asked by the business can we have two companies in the Kinetic system and then have a part demand in company 1 and fulfill the request of the part from company 2. My typical expectation is this would be an inter-company PO, but the request is does the system require it to be a PO. Can the system take a job in company 1 and source it from a different company, company 2 in the same database? I hope this makes since.
Inside Kinetic the company āwallā is finite. Mostly because GAP rules for arms-length transactions between legal entities and all that. Having demand in company A being satisfied by company B without a legitimate contract (PO) between the two would allow for foul play especially if these were stock/share-value based companies and all that investment protection provided by the SEC. At least thatās what I understand the reasoning is, and that is not something Iād want to get into unless the corporate lawyers and accountants are OK with circumventing it.
What is it that they are trying to avoid? You say āsourceā and that means āpurchaseā in accounting terms. Alternatively, you could have Company 2 make stuff, transfer it to Company A via a couple of stock adjustments and Journal entries, but thatās kind of shady
Could it be done? With some custom code or using something like Automation Studio, this is possible but could get complicated with all the possible variables (change orders, cancellations, etc.)
@MikeGross This is exactly what I was hoping someone would reply with. I just was not sure how to articulate it. Thanks so much!
Just a research question more or less as we start to consolidate into one system/database. As the question come up āEven in one database we will still have to let POsā. I said yes because it is a company/legal entity issue. Which is exactly what you stated, but I did not state it as elegantly.
