So we use Supplier Price Lists and Supplier Part numbers. Leadtimes exist on both. The problem is I’m having to DMT twice for the same update - once for the leadtime on the SPL and another update, if it exists, for the Supplier Partnum. Is there no other way to say partnum = 60 days, update SPL leadtime & SupplierPart Leadtime if it exists for the purchase default item?
great question… have you ever tried NOT populating the LT in the Supplier part numbers (ie… leave it at zero). I would have thought that if you didn’t populate it, then it would use the price in the SPL table… and also, if you leave the SPL table at zero, I think it might default back to the LT in the PartPlant table.
(BUT… i could be wrong).
If I am right, then simply don’t do the lower level update… leave it at zero.
I think that the reason there is a lead time at the Supplier Part number table is in case one supplier part has a different lead time than another part.
There is a hierarchy, I believe if lead time is 0 on the price record it will use lead time on the partplant record by default. Test this out. Thats how we handle it here.
Thanks Tim and @kylepbsps. I do get why this hierachy exists as if the vendor switches their part we could see a longer leadtime but managing several leadtimes is a pain. Also, our users can access Supplier Price list to maintain items and they will just bang away on the keyboard until they get to where they think things are working…
I will do some more testing to validate the hierachy